planetofthehumans2
Well-Known Member
Obviously I get where 2 SA goods takes the same amount of coin/supply as 1 IA goods. But I'm in the upper ages now and things are starting to become more grey. Hell I'd argue that Modern and up are far worth 2 previous age goods just because modern uses an extra good to create it (CA). But the fair trade is more equivalent than that I believe, almost 1:1 something about coin/supply not mattering anymore. And actually I've never run into any problems with anyone calling me out on a 1:2 difference in age of goods before even with PME goods until today.
Does someone have a link to a more detailed post about why those exchanges were made the way they were? Or able to explain/quote it for me?
Does someone have a link to a more detailed post about why those exchanges were made the way they were? Or able to explain/quote it for me?